No announcement yet.


  • Filter
  • Time
  • Show
Clear All
new posts

  • [QUOTE]Originally posted by japanesewhispers
    Originally posted by Raingeanach
    japanesewhispers -

    Why do you suppose Robert Burns chose to call his book of verse: Poems, Chiefly in the Scottish Dialect [of English]? Let`s face it, he was being truthful.

    Check out anSiarach`s logically worded posts in the "Trying to gain some insight from native Scots" thread in the History forum starting on 20th Feb. 2005.

    Let's face it, an English speaker couldn't understand many of Burns poems, why? Because it's in a different language.

    Then why didn`t Burns call his book - Poems, Chiefly in the Scots Language?

    Also I don't need t check anSiarach's ligical posting. I have done enough serious research into this without resorting to un-substantiated postings on the net. No offence!

    anSiarach, whoever he or she is, makes sense, unlike almost all academics.

    Scots Gaelic grew from a dialect of Irish, when did it stop being a dialect exactly? (I am aware the it is a language, just a rhetorical question) Old English and Freesian are the mutually understandable, does that make modern English a dialect of Freesian? Does that make Modern English a dialect of Old English.

    Good questions.

    However after is all said and done, if you stringently believe that Scots is not a language for whatever reason, then nothing I say will change your mind.

    The point is, "Scots" is not the Scots language - Gaidhlig is far more deserving of the title. anSiarach argues the case logically. Your students should read his posts.