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Old 10th October 2001, 00:26
dbb9 dbb9 is offline
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Anyone know if the compensation payments were given to the members of the Scots Parliament who voted against the Union?
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Old 10th October 2001, 02:19
Neil_Caple
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Interesting question, and certainly worth investigating.

Of course, technically, the payment was made in return for Scotland assuming a share of England's National Debt but, factually, it was a bribe to ensure the outcome of the Union "negotiations".
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Old 12th October 2001, 00:10
dbb9 dbb9 is offline
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Equivalent

I had thought the "Equivalent" was the payment to Scotland for taking a share of the English National Debt (via the Royal Bank which was set up for this purpose). But I see from Daiches "Scotland and the Union" that the Equivalent also included funds for repaying capital and interest to the investors in the "Darien" Company!

Why would the English government pay compensation unless they accepted part of the responsibility for the failure of the company?

Which then leaves the question:- "What were the payments which were made by the English exchequer direct to the supporters of the Union?" Were these anything other than straightforward bribes?
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Old 12th October 2001, 18:50
ANDY-J ANDY-J is offline
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In fairness to the English they had good reason to employ any available means to secure union with Scotland.They were involved in a continental war(the war of the Spanish succession)and were threatened with iminent invasion.They therefore sought to secure their northern border against the threat from a Jacobite invasion.The Scottish aristocracy of the time probably identified themselves more as either Whigs or Tories rather than Scots.In general they pursued any path which was politically expedient and profitable and would have entertained few qualms about agreeing to union.The fourth Duke of Hamilton is a prime example.He was the most vociferous anti unionist peer and a professed Jacobite and was happy to portray himself to the Scots as a hero of the nationalist cause.In reality like most of the nobility he was a gambler who was heavily in debt and preferred to spend his time frequenting London brothels and gambling clubs.The Scots nobility of the period were with few exceptions more concerned with themselves than the nation of Scotland.
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Old 14th October 2001, 19:11
Neil_Caple
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Quote:
Originally posted by ANDY-J
In fairness to the English they had good reason to employ any available means to secure union with Scotland.They were involved in a continental war(the war of the Spanish succession)and were threatened with iminent invasion.They therefore sought to secure their northern border against the threat from a Jacobite invasion.
If England had ever in her history treated Scotland with respect, particularly in matters of sovereignty, she would not have needed to "secure" her northern border. England has long had a knack for making enemies of her friends.
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Old 17th October 2001, 14:01
dbb9 dbb9 is offline
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Re: Equivalent

Quote:
"What were the payments which were made by the English exchequer direct to the supporters of the Union?" Were these anything other than straightforward bribes? [/b]
I found the answer to this. The English government gave a "Loan" of £20,000 to enable payments of "arrears and expenses."

So there was no bribery then???
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