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Old 3rd March 2008, 16:09
Croi Sasanach Croi Sasanach is offline
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1237

Hello all,

1237 was the date that saw the English-Scottish border drawn up and into a treaty (minus a few edits; berwick and the scots dyke spring to mind), it was apparantly a defacto border well before this, so I'd like to ask if anyone knows why the border is where it is?

From my understanding much of the area of Northern England and Lowlands Scotland was ruled by Germans, so how did they come to divide this to the current border?

Discuss.
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Old 3rd March 2008, 16:25
mikeyBoab mikeyBoab is offline
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Dammit. Now I need to change my PIN number.

When did the Germans rule the border areas? I didn't know that but it doesn't surprise me - the Scots dialect has much in common with German.
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Old 3rd March 2008, 16:37
Croi Sasanach Croi Sasanach is offline
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Originally Posted by mikeyBoab View Post
Dammit. Now I need to change my PIN number.

When did the Germans rule the border areas? I didn't know that but it doesn't surprise me - the Scots dialect has much in common with German.
Too late mate, I'm in your Halifax account as we speak!!

Naa, as far as i know 'Germans' came in about 600AD as mercenaries and stayed, due to their aggressive nature they took resources and anything of value and gradually (actually more or less from the kick-off) became the ruling elite, the average bloke back then spoke a language similar to Welsh until about 800-900AD though, before English became the norm.

The weird thing though is that the kingdoms they drew up (the germans) had lands both north and south of the border, so it would have made sence for all of this area to have been in England or Scotland. I'd like to kmnow how it went halfy-half.
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Old 3rd March 2008, 20:06
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Lianachan Lianachan is offline
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Are you talking about Saxons? Or Angles? Or both? "Germans" didn't exist then.
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Old 4th March 2008, 10:17
Croi Sasanach Croi Sasanach is offline
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Both. Ofcourse there was no Germany back then, as there was no England or Scotland... but you knew what i meant... however would you not refer to those fowk as English and Scottish ?

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Old 4th March 2008, 11:51
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Lianachan Lianachan is offline
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Originally Posted by Croi Sasanach View Post
Both. Ofcourse there was no Germany back then, as there was no England or Scotland... but you knew what i meant... however would you not refer to those fowk as English and Scottish ?

Nope, of course I wouldn't - the terms are meaningless. I would (and do) always refer to the specific group in question.
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Old 4th March 2008, 12:04
Croi Sasanach Croi Sasanach is offline
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Nope, of course I wouldn't - the terms are meaningless. I would (and do) always refer to the specific group in question.
Aye ok, you knew what i meant though mate.

Anyway, the question in hand - can you contribute to answering that ?
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