Scots vs. Picts

[Texasmujer]

Wow...! ALL those absweres were SO interesting!! I DO have some (more) questions, though: what does "goidelic" mean. AND, WHAT "catastrophic defeat" (referring to the Vikings, I believe) are you referring too, AnSiarach? When you mention a "catastrophic defeat", I think of the Battle of the Alamo! (NOT a apertienet event, I must admit. So, the Scots CAME FROM IRELAND? And, the Irish don't assimilate that easily/readily? Spanish people don't ssimilate that esily/readily, too. By the way, I don not mean, nor do I want to start any 'culture wars' here... Scotland's history is very interesting...
Peoples from Ireland, and the UK (England AND Scotland HAVE contributed so much to the U.S.A.); it's amazing!

[anSiarach]

Originally Posted by Texasmujer

what does "goidelic" mean.

Goidelic refers to a sub family of the Celtic languages - namely the Gaelic languages of which we have three living examples : Irish, Scottish and Manx. The continental Celts (specifically the Gauls and Iberian Celts) generally spoke Goidelic celtic languages as well i believe. The Celts of the Island of Britain such as the modern day Welsh, Cornish and the Breton of France( who emigrated from Britain about 1500 years ago) all speak Brittonic or Brythonic celtic languages. The Picts were also thought to have spoken a Brittonic celtic language.

AND, WHAT "catastrophic defeat" (referring to the Vikings, I believe) are you referring too, AnSiarach? When you mention a "catastrophic defeat", I think of the Battle of the Alamo!

Well if the Alamo had led to the collapse of the United States then it would be a fair comparison . The defeat of which i speak occured in 839 in a battle between the Picts and Vikings which saw the King Uven Mac Angus II, his brother Bran and the majority of the nobility as well as huge numbers of common soldiers slaughtered. There is a tradition (although dubious) that Kenneth macAlpin had some treacherous role in this either by refusing to aid his Pictish allies or by attacking the remnants of the Pictish army and killing off the surviving nobility but the most any modern historian seems willing to attribute to him is the possibility he did not aid the Picts as readily as he might have.

So, the Scots CAME FROM IRELAND? And, the Irish don't assimilate that easily/readily?

Yes the Scots came from Ireland but it would be misleading to confuse the Scots/Irish. If you wish to refer to the single race which was to be found on both sides of the sea it would be more correct to refer to them as the Gaelic peoples as, at various points and by various peoples, the terms 'Scots' and 'Irish' have been used to refer to the gaelic speaking celts of both Britain and Ireland (Ireland was referred to as 'Scotia Major' and Scotland as 'Scotia Minor' by some).

[anSiarach]

Originally Posted by JKennedy2

A bit off topic but the Basque are interesting because I think they are the only people I know of that might have a genetic predisposition to not assimilating readily. That is, they are very high in Blood Type RH negative.

So they are more prone to jaundice when the marry outside, which they still do, but they tend to be able to have more children when RH- marries RH-. I think thats how it works. I don't think it means anything more than that, but it might help explain their survival. Either that or it explains why those that have survived are more likely to be RH negative. It's a bit of chicken and egg maybe.

That is very interesting stuff. The Basque people fascinate me in general and to have survived/maintained their language and culture as they have for so long (they are, after all, the most 'native' of all European peoples - having lived in Europe since before the Indo-European invasion.)

[Texasmujer]

Again...this is just SO interesting. When you say Basque, are you referring to the Basque region in Spain? When I was studying, my professor told us that the Basque language is the oldest known language; and that people aren't sure where IT came from. The Basque region is the same on that is (and has been) struggling with their independence from Spain? (The ETA); every so often we hear of some terroristic act that has happened in Spain that they claim responsibility for. So, is this group one and the same with the language; I mean, are they basically the same group of people?

[anSiarach]

Originally Posted by ANDY-J3

Also it may not be coincidence that those areas which readily adopted Inglis,such as Fife and Tayside,were the former territories of the Picts which suggests that Gaelic may not have as firmly established throughout Pictland as it was in its traditional heartland of the north-west.

Possible but doubtful given the place-name evidence and the fact that the 'traditional heartland' of the north-west was anything but at the time given the norse incursions.