since 1692

[MelodeonMan]

from 1692 -1900 , scots people and Irish have been sent to America and Canada,by English government, now if everyone sent back a member of the family to scotland and ireland from all those families just think how many there would be in Scotland and Ireland,have you ever wondered what would have happened to USA and Canada today if they hadnt been sent there in first place,

[Hirta]

Originally posted by MelodeonMan
from 1692 -1900 , scots people and Irish have been sent to America and Canada,by English government, now if everyone sent back a member of the family to scotland and ireland from all those families just think how many there would be in Scotland and Ireland,have you ever wondered what would have happened to USA and Canada today if they hadnt been sent there in first place,

I have a couple of prolems with this post. Firstly, since 1707 under the act of union there has been no English government, and indeed it may be argued that before this there was no purely english government because Wales was united with England before 1692. And of course both England and Scotland shared the same ruler at this time!
If you do actually mean the government of the United Kingdom which acts, treaties etc are you referring to which forcibly removed Scots and Irish and sent them to live in North America? I can find no such references to said acts!

[ANDY-J2]

Many Scots and Irish were banished to the American colonies during the late seventeenth-century.In particular banishment was used as a punishment for Covenanters during the period of James VII rule which was known as the "killing time".Subsequently however it was highland Jacobites who suffered banishment after the various rebellions and many who were not banished perhaps left because they found life intolerable as a result of the Hanoverian attempts to eradicate Gaelic culture.Then of course there were the Highland clearances which,while not compelling the crofters to emigrate,virtually amounted to forced expulsion in many cases.I have read of a practice which was common during the eighteenth century whereby Scots volunteered to be indentured servants in the colonies and after a fixed period of time they would receive a grant of land and their freedom and many Scots,in particular Gaels's,would perhaps have saw this as a more attractive option than living in post Culloden Scotland.

[Hirta]

Originally posted by ANDY-J2
Many Scots and Irish were banished to the American colonies during the late seventeenth-century.In particular banishment was used as a punishment for Covenanters during the period of James VII rule which was known as the "killing time".Subsequently however it was highland Jacobites who suffered banishment after the various rebellions and many who were not banished perhaps left because they found life intolerable as a result of the Hanoverian attempts to eradicate Gaelic culture.Then of course there were the Highland clearances which,while not compelling the crofters to emigrate,virtually amounted to forced expulsion in many cases.I have read of a practice which was common during the eighteenth century whereby Scots volunteered to be indentured servants in the colonies and after a fixed period of time they would receive a grant of land and their freedom and many Scots,in particular Gaels's,would perhaps have saw this as a more attractive option than living in post Culloden Scotland.

1. The covenanters were persecuted because they would not accept that King Charles was head of the church, not because they were Scottish or Irish. It is interesting to note that the Stuart dynasty itself was Scottish, not English.

2. Understandibly many Jacobites were persecuted; after all, they had supported a catholic rebellion aimed at deposing the current ruler of the country, something that was not taken lightly at this time. It is interesting to note that roughly the same number of Scots fought on both sides at Culloden. They were not persecuted because they were Scottish or Irish.

3. The clearences happened in the Highlands, and even then highlanders were not in the majority in Scotland. Had this persecution been aimed at Scots/Irish per se, it is odd to find that it is aimed at a very limited geographical area. It is also interesting to note that most of the new landlords were Scottish. They were not persecuted because they were Irish or Scottish.

And there you have the reason why I took exception to the original post; it was implying that Scottish and Irish peoples were suppressed (by a government that did not exist in this time!) on purely racial grounds. In each example you have selected any suppression that did occur was on grounds other than race.

[ANDY-J2]

A point which is not often mentioned with regards to Jacobitism is that while the 1715 rebellion was taking place in Scotland there was also a smaller rebellion taking place in the north of England.The ring leaders of the English uprising were dealt with no less harshly than their Scottish counterparts and several were executed so Jacobitism was not a purely Scottish phenomenon.

[Hirta]

Originally posted by ANDY-J2
A point which is not often mentioned with regards to Jacobitism is that while the 1715 rebellion was taking place in Scotland there was also a smaller rebellion taking place in the north of England.The ring leaders of the English uprising were dealt with no less harshly than their Scottish counterparts and several were executed so Jacobitism was not a purely Scottish phenomenon.

You've hit the nail on the head! If suppression did occur it was not purely on the grounds of ethnicity as implied by melodeon man in the original post.

However, it is worth noting that all Gaels/Highlanders were treated harshly after the '45, regardless of which side they had been loyal to. It is a pretty awful government which punishes its own suporters merely on the basis of their ethnicity.