My question is somewhat similar to the one quoted below. I understand that land of a barony could be sold but jurisdiction had to be granted by the Crown. Who would then have jurisdiction over a piece of land if this had been sold without the Crown granting jurisdiction to the new proprietor? And vice versa: Could people be tenants-in-chief WITHOUT having jurisdiction over the land (freeholders?)?
I'd appreciate any help!
Originally Posted by daviddonachie
What is a Crown Charter? If Land was held as a Barony (Feudal) and part of the land/Barony was later sold. If one aquired the land and that person was then granted a Crown Charter for the land, would this then become a feudal barony in itself.Any information or explanation of this and what the granting of a crown charter in these circumstances mean would be appreciated.