Where did I conclude that Scots were Israelites? Nowhere in this thread have I done such that is if you were intimating that I was. I have said Gaels/Celts and Irish....have red flags, and you cannot truly say either way as you must admit you have no proof to say that the Gauls aren't either....they are still digging, still studying etc. It is premature to make conclusions to say the least. Even those in the field who are genuine about getting at the truth of the matter say that. If you were just making a general statement okay but I thought I would clarify it one way or the other. It is important for us Gaels to have the truth...so many have lied about our people and made up stories and ideas based on whatever whims and agendas and bias possessed them at the time. Many new discoveries have been fairly recent so for any of our people to jump on the bandwagon at this stage is foolish in light of the continuing new finds...
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Originally Posted by DistantCelt
Not necessarily. The human mouth can produce only so many range of sounds and often totally unrelated languages have the exact same word (though it may or often does mean completely different things) in their vocabulary.
The presence of small jewish communities in Europe for the past thousand plus years and the subsequent evolution of most of the current European languages during that period does indicate some borrowing and influxes but to conclude that scots = jewish from that is just fantasical British Israelism.
The presence of slight middle eastern genomes in Irish or Israeli bloodlines doesnt equate to any substantial jewish heritage or mixing at all. Infact, it could just as well be arab as they are both classified as 'semetic' people with very little mitochondrial difference ( as in amongst Sephardim, Arabs, Mizrahi etc.- the Ashkenazim being convert Khazars are different).
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