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Old 30th July 2006, 03:22
DistantCelt DistantCelt is offline
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Quote:
As for fantasy if you have Sephardic Jewish linguistics in your European language that I think that might be a bit of a red flag to say some mixing was going on
Not necessarily. The human mouth can produce only so many range of sounds and often totally unrelated languages have the exact same word (though it may or often does mean completely different things) in their vocabulary.
The presence of small jewish communities in Europe for the past thousand plus years and the subsequent evolution of most of the current European languages during that period does indicate some borrowing and influxes but to conclude that scots = jewish from that is just fantasical British Israelism.
The presence of slight middle eastern genomes in Irish or Israeli bloodlines doesnt equate to any substantial jewish heritage or mixing at all. Infact, it could just as well be arab as they are both classified as 'semetic' people with very little mitochondrial difference ( as in amongst Sephardim, Arabs, Mizrahi etc.- the Ashkenazim being convert Khazars are different).
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