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originally posted by an Siarach
One of the most surprising questions in Scottish history is why did the Picts so quickly become Scots? Why was there language so quickly replaced? Despite being far more numerous than their goidelic cousins (ive seen some historians hypothesise that the Scots made up only 10% of Scotlands population during its early years) within a century, two at most, their language had disappeared almost without trace (we have the occasional place name to remind us of them today). Their customs survived the death of their language however such as the matrilineal mode of succession, tanistry and the dual royal houses although these traditions(if i remember rightly) ended with MacBeth.
It's perhaps less surprising when you consider that Celtic societies had a very structured hierarchy and the language of the aristocracy and the church would be readily adopted by those lower down the social ladder,and also it should be remembered that there had been interaction between Picts and Scots for many centuries so the Picts were not adopting a language which was totally alien to them.Also it may not be coincidence that those areas which readily adopted Inglis,such as Fife and Tayside,were the former territories of the Picts which suggests that Gaelic may not have as firmly established throughout Pictland as it was in its traditional heartland of the north-west.
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