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I'd personally regard 1600 as the last point where Gaelic was probably the majority language of Scotland, certainly no earlier than 1500. 1746 is a bit late.
I haven't been able to find the section you're talking about. But I did find this amusing:
" The Normans conquered England in 1066, and then many Anglo-Saxons from England settled in the Lowlands of Scotland. This is when the Scots gradually adopted the English ways. Feudalism was established, and the chiefs of the clans became nobles. This is when Scottish town began to grow, trades were increased, and Scotland thrived."
The sense of "many Anglo-Saxons from England settled in the Lowlands of Scotland ... and Scotland thrived" certainly reveals an undeniable amount of Anglophilia, which is not surprising as it's very common amongst the Scots.
But rehashing the silly old "refugee thesis" for the anglicization of "the lowlands" - which never happened in any part of the Norman period anyway, so doesn't need to be explained - is rather embarrassing.
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